I wrote a (very long) blog post about those viral math problems and am looking for feedback, especially from people who are not convinced that the problem is ambiguous.
It's about a 30min read so thank you in advance if you really take the time to read it, but I think it's worth it if you joined such discussions in the past, but I'm probably biased because I wrote it :)
isn't that division sign I only saw Americans use written like this (÷) means it's a fraction? so it's 6÷2, since the divisor (or what is it called in english, the bottom half of the fraction) isn't in parenthesis, so it would be foolish to put the whole 2(1+2) down there, there's no reason for that.
so it's (6/2)*(1+2) which is 3*3 = 9.
the other way around would be 6÷(2(1+2)) if the whole expression is in the divisor and than that's 1.
tho I'm not really proficient in math, I have eventually failed it in university, but if I remember my teachers correctly, this should be the way. but again, where I live, we never use the ÷ sign, only in elementary school where we divide on paper. instead we use the fraction form, and with that, these kind of seemingly ambiguous expressions doesn't exist.
No, that means it's a division. i.e. a÷b. To indicate it's a fraction it would need to be written as (a÷b). i.e. make it a single term. Terms are separated by operators and joined by grouping symbols (such as brackets or fraction bars).
There is - it's a single bracketed term, subject to The Distributive Law. i.e. the B in BEDMAS.