I wrote a (very long) blog post about those viral math problems and am looking for feedback, especially from people who are not convinced that the problem is ambiguous.
It's about a 30min read so thank you in advance if you really take the time to read it, but I think it's worth it if you joined such discussions in the past, but I'm probably biased because I wrote it :)
isn't that division sign I only saw Americans use written like this (÷) means it's a fraction? so it's 6÷2, since the divisor (or what is it called in english, the bottom half of the fraction) isn't in parenthesis, so it would be foolish to put the whole 2(1+2) down there, there's no reason for that.
so it's (6/2)*(1+2) which is 3*3 = 9.
the other way around would be 6÷(2(1+2)) if the whole expression is in the divisor and than that's 1.
tho I'm not really proficient in math, I have eventually failed it in university, but if I remember my teachers correctly, this should be the way. but again, where I live, we never use the ÷ sign, only in elementary school where we divide on paper. instead we use the fraction form, and with that, these kind of seemingly ambiguous expressions doesn't exist.
It seems Americans are taught pemdas and not bodas.
I Looked up doing factorials and n! = n(n – 1) is used interchangeably with n! = n*(n – 1)
So Americans will multiply anything first. This is why I put 6 ÷ ( n*(n – 1)) in excel to avoid confusion.
yeah, the way I have been taught is that either you put the multiplication sign there or not, it's the exact same, there's absolutely no difference in n(n-1) and n*(n-1). in the end, you treat it like the * sign is there and it's just matter of convenience you can leave it off.
There is - the first is 1 term and the 2nd is 2 terms. Makes a difference if it's preceded by a division.
It's a matter of how many terms as to whether it's there or not.