this post was submitted on 13 Jul 2023
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The question above for the most part, been reading up on it. Also want to it for learning purposes.

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[–] outcide@lemmy.world 1 points 1 year ago (4 children)

How does that work, having the same IP internally and externally?

[–] dan@upvote.au 1 points 1 year ago* (last edited 1 year ago) (3 children)

A good ISP that supports IPv6 will give you a /64 range. That's a huge number of IPs, 2^64. Easily enough for every device on your network to have a lot of public IPs. If you use Docker or VMs, you could give each one a public IPv6 address.

When every device on your network can have a public IP, there's no longer a reason to have private IPs. Instead, you'd use firewall rules for internal-only stuff (ie allow access only if the source IP is in your IPv6 range).

This is how the internet used to work in the old days - universities would have a large IP range, and every computer on campus would have a public IP.

Of course, you'd still have a firewall on your router (and probably on your computers too) that blocks incoming connections for things you don't want to expose publicly.

[–] rehabdoll@lemmy.world 0 points 1 year ago (2 children)

A good isp would give you something bigger than a /64 - /56 or /48. something that you can subnet.

[–] vrighter@discuss.tchncs.de 1 points 1 year ago

wouldn't /64 still leave you with 64 bits for you to do whatever? Ipv6 has a 128 bit address. If you can do subnets with a small usable portion of 32 bits, then you certainly can with a full 64 bits

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