this post was submitted on 06 Sep 2024
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but if they got drunk knowing what they were drinking (like not being drugged or something similar) and commit a crime, they can still be liable, right?
How is that relevant?
both things are crimes commited while drunk, and i believe in both instances the person is liable for commiting the crime.
Maybe I'm missing the point. I thought we were talking about consent, and now one cannot give consent while very drunk.
i was talking about how she was sexually assaulting the guy