this post was submitted on 21 Oct 2024
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Antitrust law has long recognized that monopolies stifle innovation and gouge consumers on price. When it comes to Big Tech, harm to innovation—in the form of “kill zones,” where major corporations buy up new entrants to a market before they can compete with them—has been easy to find. Consumer harms have been harder to quantify, since a lot of services the Big Tech companies offer are “free.” This is why we must move beyond price as the major determinator of consumer harm. And once that’s done, it’s easier to see even greater benefits competition brings to the greater internet ecosystem.

In the decades since the internet entered our lives, it has changed from a wholly new and untested environment to one where a few major players dominate everyone's experience. Policymakers have been slow to adapt and have equated what's good for the whole internet with what is good for those companies. Instead of a balanced ecosystem, we have a monoculture. We need to eliminate the build up of power around the giants and instead have fertile soil for new growth.

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[–] the_toast_is_gone@lemmy.world 0 points 1 month ago (7 children)

If we don't have competition, how will that be anything other than monopoly?

[–] metaStatic@kbin.earth 5 points 1 month ago (6 children)

what are we competing over? what happens when someone wins the competition?

[–] the_toast_is_gone@lemmy.world 0 points 1 month ago (5 children)

We're competing for people's cash. If we do a good job at getting it, we get more of it. But how do you define "win"?

Also, please answer my question. If there is no competition, then how do you have anything other than a monopoly?

[–] mindaika@lemmy.dbzer0.com 5 points 1 month ago (1 children)

Easy: The “win” is when all money not absolutely required for existence is in the hands of the bourgeoisie

[–] the_toast_is_gone@lemmy.world -4 points 1 month ago* (last edited 1 month ago) (1 children)

That sounds an awful lot like an authoritarian state seizing control of the economy (for example, the Soviet Union). That most certainly didn't happen through free market forces.

And I notice you still haven't answered my question. Why is that? I think it would be pretty simple to answer, wouldn't it? (Edit: got the wrong username)

[–] mindaika@lemmy.dbzer0.com 4 points 1 month ago* (last edited 1 month ago) (1 children)

“Unregulated capitalism” sounds like the Soviet Union to you?

I didn’t answer your question because I don’t give a fuck about you, and also I wasn’t the person you responded to. Your lack attention to detail explains why you’re so confused

[–] the_toast_is_gone@lemmy.world -1 points 1 month ago (1 children)

My point is that the described scenario - "all money not absolutely required for existence is in the hands of the bourgeoisie" - hasn't happened under free market systems as often as it has in communist/"state capitalist" countries like the Soviet Union.

I'm sorry I got you mixed up with the other person. But I find it interesting they haven't answered that question yet.

[–] Flocklesscrow@lemm.ee 2 points 1 month ago

Your conversation style is tedious.

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