this post was submitted on 24 Feb 2026
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As far as I know, Israel's stance is that because Jews inhabited Israel before the Arab Palestinian "invaders," they're completely justified in exterminating them to take back their homeland.
If we assume that Israel's stance is "correct," doesn't it logically follow that every other country is completely justified in exterminating Jews because they're "invaders" to everywhere but Israel?
If that's not antisemitic I don't know what is.
Or, if the assertion is that every country should accept and accommodate Jews (which is the correct assertion obviously), why are Jews in Israel not held to the same standard regarding Palestinians?
It's also worth noting (I'm sure you're aware of this) that it's completely false. Palestinians were Arabized, they were there before Arabs and then became Arabs and are even party descendants of the Jews who remained in the region. They are native to Palestine and Ashkenazim are not (they are Europeans). The most important early zionists such as Herzl and Ben Gurion were very aware of this when they openly described their project as colonialism.