this post was submitted on 05 Nov 2023
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Heh (sh.itjust.works)
submitted 1 year ago by sjmarf@sh.itjust.works to c/memes@lemmy.ml
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[–] Limitless_screaming@kbin.social 1 points 1 year ago (1 children)

In this case yes, but if q1 was -20μC, q2 was 30μC, and r was 0.5m, then using -20μC as it is would make F equal to -21.6N which is just 21.6N of attraction force between the two charges.

[–] Pelicanen@sopuli.xyz 3 points 1 year ago (1 children)

If they are oppositely charged particles, I would expect that there is a force of attraction acting on them, yes.

[–] Limitless_screaming@kbin.social 0 points 1 year ago (1 children)

I am not saying that's wrong, just that there's 21.6N of attraction force between the two charges not -21.6N.

[–] Pelicanen@sopuli.xyz 1 points 1 year ago (1 children)

But those are the same thing.

[–] Bene7rddso@feddit.de 2 points 1 year ago (1 children)

No, if the force is negative it acts in the opposite direction

[–] Pelicanen@sopuli.xyz 1 points 1 year ago

Yes, and a force acting in the opposite direction of the distance is an attractive force.