this post was submitted on 11 Dec 2023
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[–] OpenPassageways@lemmy.zip 2 points 11 months ago (1 children)

Just curious... In what way did Ross Perot come close to winning? I see that he got 8% of the popular vote in 1996 but I'm not seeing that he ever got an electoral vote.

[–] explodicle@local106.com 0 points 11 months ago (1 children)

In that he got a large percentage of the total votes.

[–] Scary_le_Poo@beehaw.org 2 points 11 months ago (1 children)

"very close to actually winning"

"8% of the popular vote"

"Very close"

...

[–] explodicle@local106.com 1 points 11 months ago (1 children)

Yes, that was only 25% short.

[–] Scary_le_Poo@beehaw.org 1 points 11 months ago (1 children)

Yeah if only 4x more than what they actually got, they totally could have won. You do understand that 25% is nowhere near "very close"

[–] explodicle@local106.com 1 points 11 months ago (1 children)

No. I'm telling you that within 25% is close and you're trying to argue that it's not.

[–] Scary_le_Poo@beehaw.org 1 points 11 months ago (1 children)

He would need at MINIMUM 3x+ votes more than he got in order to win. That isn't close.

[–] explodicle@local106.com 1 points 11 months ago

We seem to agree entirely on how math works, yet disagree entirely as to how easily 25% of voters can change their minds.