this post was submitted on 18 Mar 2026
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[โ€“] Iconoclast@feddit.uk 10 points 22 hours ago (1 children)

Pedophilia doesn't describe behaviour but attraction. If a rapist is not exlusively attracted to children then they're by definition not a pedophile. I'm well aware that in everyday language that word is used interchangeably with child molester but those terms are not synonymous.

[โ€“] kip@piefed.zip 1 points 22 hours ago

agree with all of that except the exclusive bit, i'm going to go with the wikipedia definition

a psychiatric disorder in which an adult or older adolescent experiences a primary or exclusive sexual attraction to prepubescent children

which presents a problem for my point, doesn't it. if you are attracted to children, but not primarily, what are you? a semipaedo? if you only ever told one lie, it doesn't make you a liar. that is acceptable, even obvious to me. but you only fucked one kid so you're not a paedophile? i can't get my head round that