this post was submitted on 09 Jun 2026
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[–] IAmNorRealTakeYourMeds@lemmy.world 3 points 5 hours ago* (last edited 5 hours ago) (1 children)

how the fuck i didn't realize that!!!!

Fuck,

so 1 in base pi is still 1, but 10 is pi

makes sense,

1 =pi ^ 0

10=pi^1

100 = pi^2

my intuition kept telling me that using an irrational base system would end up with all integers being irrational. didn't realize how easy it is to prove it otherwise

ie, I had a very bad conjecture and I gained better understanding why it was wrong

[–] Trail@lemmy.world 2 points 2 hours ago (1 children)

1 in base pi would be 1/π, wouldn't it? Why 1?

[–] setsubyou@lemmy.world 2 points 1 hour ago* (last edited 1 hour ago)

1 in base 10 isn’t 1/10 and in hexadecimal it’s not 1/16.

Decimal integers in base pi are 1, 2, 3, 10.2201…, 11.2201…, 12.2201…, 20.2201… and so on.

Basically: 10.2201… = 1 * pi^1 + 0 * pi^0 + 2 * pi^-1 + 2 * pi^-2 … which approaches 4 as you add digits.

But 1 is just 1*pi^0