this post was submitted on 25 Nov 2023
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[–] 0x4E4F@infosec.pub 1 points 2 years ago* (last edited 2 years ago) (1 children)

No, they're completely different, have absolutely nothing in common. Though, yes, the Roman Empire did steal a lot of the culture from Greece.

[–] TrickDacy@lemmy.world -1 points 2 years ago (1 children)

have absolutely nothing in common.

They are both Indo-European languages and it shows. The words for father and mother for example, are very similar in the two languages.

I will never understand why people always want to deny the interconnected nature of the universe and instead want everything to be unrelated and separate

[–] 0x4E4F@infosec.pub 0 points 2 years ago* (last edited 2 years ago) (1 children)

The word for father and mother (especially mother) are similar in many European languages, Slavic included, which doesn't mean the cultures share the same roots.

Though yes, I would agree that living on the same continent meant different cultures get to share a lot, inclding language, through trade or other means.

[–] KoboldOfArtifice@ttrpg.network 1 points 2 years ago

The point being made though was that the languages are well shown to be genuinely related through a common ancestral language from which they both deviated, just as have most languages in Europe and parts of the Near East. The connection is tangible and quite real, not something just based on some few similarities.