this post was submitted on 06 Aug 2024
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I had to skim quite a few down the search results to find an article that described what it meant by suing for "illegal boycott" in more detail.
https://variety.com/2024/digital/news/elon-musk-x-sues-advertisers-garm-boycott-1236097110/
But what would it even change? The businesses would no longer be able to make an explicit agreement, probably have to pay a fine, but can they be forced to advertise or will they just proceed to coincidentally all decide not to advertise without explicitly colluding?
"We decided not to advertise with this company because they sued us."
This requires proof for collusion, does it not?
I would think. And if that proof exists, it will come up at the appropriate time during legal proceedings. I'm skeptical there is any.
I guess they could call the entire existence of GARM to be collusion; companies banding together to "punish" companies who don't follow their guidelines. But X is (was?) a voluntary member of GARM, so it seems that would be a difficult argument for them to make without implicating themselves too.
If Musk is part of that collusion, then is it still a conspiracy?
He told them to fuck off, they fucked off.